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ASK THE EXPERTS: PHARMACEUTICAL AGENTS

What are the pros and the cons of antifibrinolytics during cardiac surgery? —ashaddadin@hotmail.com

Dr. Richard Prielipp responds:

Use of the lysine analogue, Amicar (epsilon-amino-caproic acid), specifically inhibits fibrinolysis which may be triggered by exposure of the patient's blood to the artificial surfaces of the CPB circuit. To be most effective, Amicar probably needs to be administered BEFORE the hemostatic stress initiated by CPB. The dosing is controversial, but probably requires both a loading dose, and a constant infusion during the cardiac operation. Most studies suggest that use of Amicar is associated with a reduction in mediastinal bleeding after surgery, but it is difficult to correlate this with an actual reduction in transfusion of blood, or use of blood coagulation products. Amicar does have the feature of being available as a generic compound, and thus, is quite inexpensive (on the order of 20 dollars to treat one patient).

By contrast, Aprotinin, is a more broad-based serine-protease inhibitor, and has multiple, complex effects modulating multiple coagulation, inflammatory, and complement pathways. The effects are generally considered "more potent" than Amicar, and some studies do show an actual reduction in the use of blood after surgery--- especially in redo cardiac operations. However, in the USA, Aprotinin is rather expensive, and a full-dose regimen may cost $1,500 - $2,000 dollars per patient. There is really little evidence that either compound is associated with a documented increase in the incidence of early bypass graft thrombosis, but this remains a concern. One note of caution -- once you commit to a therapy, you need to "stick with it." Do not mix the two agents together in any one patient.


Is it safe to use IV/IM clonidine hydrochloride for epidural route? —lrey@urbis.net.il

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

The only injectable preparation available in the USA is Duraclon. It only has indications for epidural administration from the FDA. It is preservative free and has been used intrathecally in some publications as well. As far as I can determine through searches and discussions with our pharmacy, there is no form that is indicated for IV or IM use. The injectable form available in the USA is safe for epidural administration.


What is the lowest platelet count at which patients in labour can be offered epidural analgesia? —khussain@gofree.indigo.ie

Dr. Joy Steadman responds:

The truth is: no one really knows. Some institutions have an artificial cutoff at 100,000. However, studies using the Platelet Function Analyzer show that as soon as the platelet count falls below 150,000, clot function in the PFA begins to fail. Yet everyone who does obstetric anesthesia has no problem with platelet counts below 150K but above 100K. Perhaps other questions must be asked:

1) Is this a patient with stable ITP or TTP or Lupus? A chronic platelet count of 60,000 may be fine to place an epidural.
2) Does this patient have a really terrible airway AND other risks for a bad outcome with general anesthesia (i.e. morbid obesity, severe preeclampsia, cardiomyopathy, longstanding diabetes, etc) In that case I personally talk with and really educate the patient about the various risks and benefits. The hypothetical risk of an epidural hematoma is less frightening to me than the risk of a lost airway and death.
3) Does the patient have a really strong desire to have an epidural and a really good reason. A woman dying from her liver transplant rejection may just want to be awake and alert for the birth of her child, whereas someone who heard that epidurals are great and happens to have a platelet count of 22,000 doesn't really necessarily need an epidural.
4) Remember that even surgeons like the platelet count to be above 50,000 before they do something invasive.


I am an anesthesiologist in M�xico. There has been an explosion here in the use of the Cox-1 and Cox-2 inhibitors, both in prescription use and outside the medical establishment, often without controIs. Are there cardiovascular side effects that we should be keeping an eye out for? —berny47_2000@yahoo.es

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

Cox-1 and Cox-2 have different side effects. Unlike Cox-1 inhibitors like ibuprofen (Motrin) or ketorolac (Toradol), Cox-2 drugs such as paracoxib (Bextra) do not have any effects on platelets, and, are therefore a better choice to use in the perioperative period. Unlike ketorolac, cox-2 drugs do not have gastric ulceration as a significant side effect, so do not have to be as carefully monitored in that regard (e.g. ketorolac has a imitation as to how long one should remain on the drug postoperatively, and the dosing regimen is age dependent). Unfortunately, no cox-2 drugs are available in IV form, nor has their efficacy been established in the treatment of postoperative pain. Ketorolac remains the only IV NSAID with a perioperative pain management indication. However, in my opinion, it is likely that studies currently being done will demonstrate that cox-2 drugs do help with perioperative pain management.

In terms of cardiovascular issues, there are relatively few other side effects. There is some effect on renal blood flow regulation that, to my knowledge, has not been shown to impact perioperative renal outcomes.


The FDA has recently reported arrhythmias and fatalities at droperidol doses as low as 0.25 mg. Given that many of us have used this drug thousands of times at adult doses of 0.625 mg without any problem, should this new report change our practice? —jroberts@mayohospital.com

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

Only if you fear the legal profession. And you should. The black box warning, paraphrased, says that you should not use droperidol unless all other therapies are not working. AND everyone getting droperidol should have a 12 lead EKG to rule out a pre-existing prolonged QT interval. Since patients have arrhythmias and heart problems in the perioperative period, if you have given droperidol, you will get blamed.

The whole point of the FDA accumulating information is to detect trends/issues that are not apparent to the individual practitioner.

I think our national society, though, should have insisted on a thorough review of low dose droperidol PRIOR TO THE ISSUANCE OF THE BALCK BOX WARNING and considered collecting data on the use of low dose droperidol. The likelihood of that happening now is extremely low. Given the generic nature of the drug, the fact that medico-legal risk would be incurred, and that patients would need an informed consent that reiterates the black box warning that they could die from receiving droperidol makes it exceedingly unlikely that a study will be done that allows droperidol to find its way back into our practice.


What are the current recommendations regarding discontinuing Plavix (clopidogrel) prior to an epidural for vascular surgery? Can it be continued, like aspirin, up to the day of surgery? —chcost@aol.com

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

The current recommendations are 10-14 days for discontinuation of Plavix prior to an epidural for vascular surgery.


What is the current recommendation for discontinuing Sulphasalazine before elective surgery (TURP)? —kwetny@usa.net

Dr. Kathryn McGoldrick responds:

I am not aware of any blanket recommendation to discontinue sulphasalazine preoperatively. However, a preop CBC may be helpful because the drug has (very rarely) been associated with agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and even aplastic anemia. Occasional hepatotoxicity and pulmonary eosinophilia have also been reported. One should also be aware that the drug may impair the hepatic metabolism of oral anticoagulants and may reduce the serum levels of digoxin.


What are the relevant anesthetic issues concerned with patients on naltrexone? —tyctoc@idx.com.au

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

The most relevant anesthetic issue for someone taking Naltrexone is the issue of using opiates for pain control. If they are taking it as a part of an alcohol abstinence program and it may be discontinued during the perioperative period, it is not an issue. If it is to be continued during the perioperative period, it will be difficult to use opiates for pain control. The doses required to provide pain control will be greatly exaggerated and would defeat any apparent purpose of keeping the individualon Naltrexone. If it is desirable to maintain the Naltrexone dosing throughout the perioperative period, then non-opioid based analgesic techniques should be utilized. These might include regional anesthesia/analgesia techniques, local anesthetic infiltration, NSAIDs,ice, TENS, massage, hypnosis, acupuncture or other techniques as appropriateto the particular surgical procedure.


Could you please tell me if epinephrine is used in ankle blocks, and if not, what the disadvantage is? —Lynn Schable

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

Epinephrine is not appropriate for use in ankle blocks. There is a significant risk of causing severe vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the foot. This may result in significant ischemia and tissue damage.There is little risk of absorbing toxic levels of local anesthetic from an ankle block and if long duration is desired, using plain bupivacaine will provide a long lasting block without the need for epinephrine.


Many of our elderly hip fracture patients are on Plavix for ischemic heartor brain disease. When they present for ORIF or bipolar arthroplasty mypractice has been to give them spinal anesthesia. However, we have noticedthese patients have significantly increased intraoperative hemorrhagecompared to patients who are not on antiplatelet agents and even those whoare mildly coumadinized (INR<2). Are there any guidelines with regard tocentral neuraxial block for patients on this potent platelet inhibitor? —eungkim67@yahoo.com

Dr. Ronald Olson responds:

There is very little data on this. We stop the clopidogrel between 7 and 14 days preoperatively. Individual cases must balance the presumably decreased risk of spinal hematoma from stopping early, with the increased risk of stroke or MI. Thus if the risk of embolism or thrombosis is high, we only stop for 7 days; if the risk is small, we stop between 10 and 14 days preop. Anesthesiologists have legitimate differences in opinion on this.

Here is the recommendation published on the ASA website


Would you please send me information about the infusion of xylocaine and atracurium (combination) in intravenous regional anesthesia. —MOIS@cyberia.net.lb

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

I have never heard of such a practice.

Dr. Beverly Philip responds:

I do not know about infusing atracurium as part of intravenous regional anesthesia.


My hospital has recently implemented the use of generic propofol. I am unfamiliar with many of the subtle and not so subtle differences as compared with Diprivan. In which patients, or situations should I avoid the generic substance. Also is a history of allergy to "sulfa" drugs a contraindication to using propofol with bisulfites? —dnigus@pol.net

Dr. Beverly Philip responds:

The issue is not with the propofol itself, but with the preservative in the less expensive formulation, metabisulfite. The FDA has stated repeatedly that the two formulations of propofol, by the two different companies, are equivalent, and the FDA does not support restrictions or other cautions about use.


What is the opinion of the Advisory Board on current guidelines concerning the use of standard heparin 5000 u pre-operatively as well as low molecular weight heparins pre-operatively and subsequent regional techniques, i.e. spinal/epidural. There are few reports of spinal hematomas but no guidelines. I have recently been giving enoxaparin sc 40 mg 12 hours pre-operatively, but I do not know if that time delay will be losing the anti-thrombotic effect.

Dr. Douglas Coursin responds:

The most current guidelines on anticoagulation are available as a supplement to CHEST 2001; 119:1S-370S. A review of these guidelines and comments on recent investigations with subfractions of heparin will be the topic of a forthcoming clinical commentary and literature review.

The simple answer to your question is to use the low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that your institution has available (i.e. dalteperin, enoxiparin, nadroperin, tinzaparin, or others). Doses vary as to what source you use, see below for general recommendations. Timing of the doses are similar to dosing unfractionated heparin. Low-molecular-weight heparins are given subcutaneously usually 1 - 2 hours before surgery. LMWHs are usually administered once daily in normal risk patients, but high risk patients (such as yours with a prior history of DVT/PE or undergoing cancer surgery) should receive their doses earlier in the preop period and receive higher daily single doses or be dosed twice daily. Some studies show that LWMHs are better than low-dose unfractionated heparin at preventing venous thromboembolism and cause fewer wound hematomas.

Some recommended doses:

Low risk or normal risk

High risk

Dalteperin 2500 units 1-2 h prior to surgery and then qd

Dalteperin 5000 units 10 - 12 h prior to surgery and then qd

Enoxaparin 30 mg 1-2 h prior to surgery and then qd

Enoxaparin 40 mg 10 - 12 h prior to surgery and then qd

Nadroparin 3100 units 2 h prior to surgery and then qd

 

Tinzaparin 3500 units 2 h prior to surgery and then qd

 

A couple of good refs:

  1. Weitz J. Drug Therapy - LMWH. NEJM 1997; 337:688-698
  2. Horlocker TT and Heit JA. Anesth Analg 1997; 85:874-885

Two other important issues in this patient are:

  1. The use of neuraxial blocks in patient who are on or will receive low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Look to the PDR for a boxed warning about this. Also see Recommendations for Neuraxial Anesthesia and Anticoagulation at <http://www.asra.com>, look under items of interest and follow the table of contents.

Also see -

  • Tryba M. European practice guidelines: thromboembolism prophylaxis and regional anesthesia. Regional Anesthesia & Pain Medicine. 23(6 Suppl 2):178-82, 1998
  • Horlocker TT. Wedel DJ. Neuraxial block and low-molecular-weight heparin: balancing perioperative analgesia and thromboprophylaxis [see comments]. [Review] [27 refs] Regional Anesthesia & Pain Medicine. 23(6 Suppl 2):164-77, 1998
  • Horlocker T T, Wedel, D. Spinal and Epidural Blockade and Perioperative Low Molecular Weight Heparin: Smooth Sailing on the Titanic 1998; 86:1153-1155. 

In this editorial, Horlocker and Wedel recommend that in patients receiving neuraxial technique:

  1. The smallest effective dose of LMWH should be administered perioperatively. The FDA has recently approved enoxaparin 40 mg once daily as an alternate dosage regimen for thromboprophylaxis after total hip arthroplasty. Single daily dosing results in a true trough in anticoagulant activity, during which time needle placement and catheter removal can occur.
  2. LMWH therapy should be delayed as long as possible: a minimum of 12 h and, ideally, 24 h postoperatively. This is within the FDA-approved dosage schedule and is particularly true for patients with indwelling catheters.
  3. Antiplatelet or oral anticoagulant medications administered in combination with LMWH may increase the risk of spinal hematoma. Education of the entire patient care team is necessary to avoid potentiation of the anticoagulant effects.
  4. The risk of spinal hematoma in patients with indwelling catheters who receive LMWH is almost certainly increased. Removal of the catheter before initiating LMWH therapy may be a compromise that provides superior analgesia for 24 h but eliminates the risk of concomitant epidural analgesia and LMWH therapy.
  5. Catheter removal should occur when anticoagulant activity is low. Twice daily dosing of LMWH results in two peaks and no trough of anti-Xa activity. Skipping the evening dose of LMWH before an anticipated morning removal of the epidural catheter is unlikely to significantly increase the risk of thromboembolic events, but it should provide safe conditions for catheter removal.

Finally, all patients undergoing neuraxial block require repeated neurologic evaluations. A dilute local anesthetic or opioid solution permits the accurate assessment of neurologic status.





I recently had a 16 yr old patient with a prolonged response to mivacurium; turns out he was most likely homozygous for the atypical trait per enzymeanalysis. I have searched for a thorough information source for the family, but have come up short. Any suggestions? —stanleythor@home.com

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

No further suggestions. Only homozygous individuals will manifest the problem. Therefore, assume both parents are heterozygous at least, and don't use sux or mivacurium on ANYONE in their family given the multiplealternatives (like rocuronium, cis-atracurium) which do not utilizepseudocholinesterase for metabolism.


Can tramadol be used as an adjuvant with opioids? If so, what are the advantages?—viswanatha_m@usa.net

Dr. Beverly Philip responds:

According to the PDR, tramadol may have less respiratory depression than morphine at recommended doses. Also, it does not release histamine. However, there may be a risk of seizures with this drug. This risk may be increased in patients also taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or opiods, as well as MAO inhibitors, neuroleptics, and other drugs which reduce the seizure threshold. In addition, coffee-room gossip suggests that tramadol is associated with a high rate of nausea/vomiting.


I'd like to ask those who are experienced in clonidine usage in patients with acute heroin intoxication about an appropriate dosage. As far as I know one has to use a much higher dose of clonidine managing heroin addicted people.

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

There are a large number of references available through a search of this topic on MD Consult. Two references regarding the use of clonidine for opiate withdrawal include:

  1. Effective Medical Treatment of Opiate Addiction NIH Consensus Statement 1997 Nov 15(6):1
  2. Acute detoxification of opioid-addicted patients with naloxone during propofol or methohexital anesthesia: a comparison of withdrawal symptoms, neuroendocrine, metabolic and cardiovascular patterns. Crit Care Med 2000 Apr;28(4):969-76.


Is morphine preferred to meperidine in post operative analgesia in PCA pumps? If so, why? Please quote a study.—skhan@stny.rr.com

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

Morphine is preferred over meperidine for PCA pumps in almost all settings. This is due to morphine’s demonstrated ability to provide analgesia when used in a PCA delivery system and a reduced incidence of adverse side effects when using morphine instead of meperidine. Meperidine has the potential for extremely dangerous drug interactions, most notablywith MAOI anti-depressants. In addition, the metabolite of meperidine(normeperidine) can accumulate and produce seizures. This adverse side effect is primarily related to dose and duration of treatment. However, ithas been reported to occur in relatively short timeframes and with doses that do not appear excessive. These complications have been described in anumber of publications.

A good review of this in the pediatric setting maybe found in:

Golianu B, Krane EJ, Galloway KS, Yaster M, WB Saunders. Pediatric Acute Pain Management. Pediatric Clinics of North America June 2000; 47(3):559-87

A brief case series description in adults may be found in:

Stone PA, Macintyre PE, Jarvis DA. Norpethidine toxicity and patient controlled analgesia. Br J Anaesth 1993 Nov;71(5):738-40

It should not be implied that this drug may never be used, but rather that there are safer, more desirable alternatives that are capable of providing excellent analgesia. In the event that the patient says that they are"allergic" to morphine, effective PCA may be delivered with hydromorphone or fentanyl without the same risks that are encountered with meperidine.


Are biguanides (metformin) perioperatively contraindicated because of a SPECIFIC interaction with anesthetics OR because of the general risk of lactacidosis? Any new literature on this?—anets@anaesthesie.uni-wuerzburg.de

Special thanks to Lynne Alexander, Beth McLendon and the Pharmacy Department at Duke University for the following answer:

Beth McLendon, Pharm. D. responds:

According to the literature, biguanides should not be given perioperatively due to the potential for lactic acidosis. There was no published literature that documents a direct interaction between metformin andanesthetics.

The package insert states that metformin "should be withheld for any surgical procedure, except minor procedures not associated with restricted intake of food and fluids and should not be restarted until the patient's oral intake has resumed and renal function has been evaluated as normal". Metformin is not metabolized by the liver, therefore renal function is essential for the patient to clear the drug from the body. The package insert also has a special warning for patients scheduled for radiologic studies, in which metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after the procedure and only restarted once the patients renal function hasbeen evaluated as normal.

A case report in the literature by Mercker SK, et. al changed their hospital policy after a rare incident where a patient died after minor surgery (with subsequent low caloric intake) to the following: stop metformin several days before and after surgery. They recommend that if metformin cannot be omitted beforehand (i.e. emergency cases) that patients be monitored for serum lactate concentration, arterial blood gasanalysis and renal performance perioperatively.

References:

  1. Anesthesiology 1997;87(4):1003-1005.
  2. Peters A. Exp & Clin Endocrine & Diabetes 1995;103(4):213-8.
  3. Ritter MM. Biguanide and elective anesthesia. Anaesthesist. 1998 Jun;47(6):522.

I would like to know about the use of perioperative metoprolol in patients with unstable angina undergoing non-cardiac surgery. —jmarton@hlrd.insalud.es

Dr. David Lubarsky responds:

There are several articles addressing the use of beta blockers in patients at risk for ischemia undergoing non-cardiac surgery. Poldermans et al. in a NEJM article (reviewed in AnesthesiaWeb) gives the best example of how to use beta blockers. Beta blockade prior to surgery for several days and then throughout the perioperative period will lessen ischemia, MI, and death 10 fold in at risk patients (defined by dobutamine stress echo). However, the patient set studied excluded those with severe wall motion abnormalities in the screening dobutamine stress echo test - meaning that most patients with unstable angina probably had additional cardiac workup and intervention and were not part of the study. As for actual use of metoprolol. Gentle titration (1-2 mg every 3-5 minutes monitoring the heart rate) prior to surgery and administration to a resting rate of 50-60 is appropriate in those who can tolerate the effect without dropping their blood pressure significantly. Although B1 specific, patients with severe COPD/asthma may still suffer from the lack of total B1 specificity. In my experience, using judicious but fairly liberal patient selection, I have not encountered pulmonary problems using the drug in this fashion.


How effective is the use of ondansetron and dexamethasone combination in middle ear surgeries where there is a vestibular component also involved. Are there any good references for this? —usha@doctor.com

Dr. David Lubarsky with advice from Dr. TJ Gan responds:

In general multimodal therapy is always superior. Middle ear surgery responds well to histamine receptor antagonists (e.g. hydroxyzine). A full review of combination antiemetics will be published by Dr. Habib et al in June in the Journal of Ambulatory Surgery.


What do you recommend for pain management during bilateral myringotomy in small children? Also, do you have any new recommendations for PONV and pain management in pediatric patients? — PLINKENH@AOL.COM

Dr. Charles Coté responds:

Myringotomy pain varies from none to severe depending in part upon the surgeon and whether or not there is a laceration of the auditory canal which sometimes occurs while removing wax buildup. Generally these children do not have an IV started. We usually give either 15-20 mg/kg acetaminophen orally 15 minutes before the myringotomy or 40 mg/kg rectalacetaminophen immediately after induction. Others have advocated intramuscular morphine in low dose 0.05 mg/kg after induction while others have used intra nasal Butorphanol. The later has only been looked at in one study.Regarding PONV - the most effective and the cheapest method for preventionis administration of decadron 0.5 mg / kg up to 8 mg - some go as high as16 mg....a single dose seems to be effective for up to 24 hours. If you really want to cover them adding Zofran 0.1 mg/kg up to 4 mg IV will provide added protection in the first 6-8 hours but the decadron will cover for the remaining 24 hours..
I am a third year anesthesia resident. Our institution is planning to do a study comparing the use of preservative-free intrathecal nalbuphine with tetracaine-heavy local anesthetic for C-section with intrathecal morphine and local anesthetics. Our aim is to find alternatives to morphine, primarily because of its side effects. Could you give us more information regarding the dose of nalbuphine or some literature on similar studies?— tph_anes@mozcom.com

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

A nice article describing the effects of intrathecal nalbuphine as well as the dose was published in Anesthesia and Analgesia: Yaksh T, Birnbach DJ. Intrathecal nalbuphine after cesarean delivery: are we ready? Anesth Analg. 2000 Sep;91(3):505-8.
Please shed some light on the use of regional anesthesia in patients who have been on pletal or plavix. If regional anesthesia is contraindicated in such patients, how many days would you have them discontinue use of thesebefore you under take giving a regional anesthetic? —brosa4@mediaone.net

Dr. Katherine McGoldrick responds:

Plavix is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation. As long as the patient gives no history of easy bleeding or bruising while on this drug, we feel comfortable proceeding with regional anesthesia. If there is a tendency toward bleeding/bruising I would wait 10 days after discontinuing the medication to be on the safe side.
I have no information on "pletal" and was unable to find it in the PDR.


Our facility is using propofol now due to cost controls. I understand that caution is necessary when using this drug in steroid dependent asthmatics. If the patient uses steroid inhalers only, (no oral steroids) can one use propofol safely? Also, if this same patient can drink wine with sulfites without distress, can I still use propofol?
— Ruth Hunt krsa1170@aol.com

Dr. Beverly K. Philip responds:

The issue is not with the propofol itself, but with the preservative in the less expensive formulation, metabisulfite. The FDA has stated repeatedly that the two formulations of propofol, by the two different companies, are equivalent, and the FDA does not support restrictions or other cautions about use.


Our facility is using propofol now due to cost controls. I understand that caution is necessary when using this drug in steroid dependent asthmatics. If the patient uses steroid inhalers only, (no oral steroids) can one use propofol safely? Also, if this same patient can drink wine with sulfites without distress, can I still use propofol?
— Ruth Hunt krsa1170@aol.com

Dr. Beverly Philip responds:

The issue is not with the propofol itself, but with the preservative in the less expensive formulation, metabisulfite. The FDA has stated repeatedly that the two formulations of propofol, by the two different companies, are equivalent, and the FDA does not support restrictions or other cautions about use.


Can you help me in finding the address of all the manufacturers of Halothane
— Dr. Syed Jamil Hassan sjamilh@yahoo.com

Dr. Katherine Grichnik responds:

We do not use Halothane at our institution any longer so I have no source for finding out this information. I searched the web but found no manufacturers.


What do you think about intradermic morphine for postoperative pain? Which is more effective, SC or intradermic morphine?
assede@uol.com.br

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

I don't think that there is any good indication for the use of intradermal morphine in the postoperative setting. Subcutaneous morphine has been used successfully in a wide variety of settings with reasonably good absorption. This is especially true in the setting of chronic administration for cancer pain. There is not a great deal of data regarding the use of intradermal morphine and I would not recommend it for pain control in the acute postoperative setting. There are many other methods with significantly more predictable results


Do you have information about the efficacy of epidural steroids in sciatica and spinal stenosis?
— Dr. Matthew M. Campbell matthew.c@clear.net.nz

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

These are both appropriate indications for the use of epidural steroids. As far as sciatica is concerned, the most likely candidate is one with pain of less than one years duration, without significant neurologic deficit, clear radicular pattern and with imaging studies that confirm the history and physical examination. Patients with lumbar spinal stenosis are somewhat more controversial. Patients with a clear history of pain, neurogenic claudication and the absence of significant neurologic deficit are the best candidates. As with sciatica, shorter duration of symptoms and agreement of the history, physical and imaging studies are the best candidates. A good review of the topic may be found in the article by Steven E. Abram:

  • Abram SE. Treatment of Lumbosacral Radiculopathy with Epidural Steroids, Anesthesiology 1999: 91(6): 1937-41.

Do you have any recommendations regarding the duration of monitoring for respiratory depression following IT/EPID fentanyl? How soon could you safely send a patient back to a routine postop surgical ward following fentanyl (IT/EPID)? This is relevant to practice in the UK particularly, where we do not often have the luxury of large PACUs with facilities for 24 hour patient stay.
— jo jaidev sreejo@jaidev.fsnet.co.uk

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

The duration of any respiratory depressant effects will be dose-dependent. If the dose of intrathecal or epidural fentanyl is small, e.g. 10 - 25 ug intrathecally, the patient can safely be sent to the floor 1-2 hours after the drug is administered. Even larger doses will only last 4-6 hours and patients may then be sent to the floor. This is similar for small epidural doses of the drug. If significantly larger doses of drug are administered, they may need to be monitored for a longer period of time although these doses are not commonly given.


What is the maximal dose of intrathecal fentanyl that should be given when it is used as an adjuvant to spinal anesthesia for post operative pain relief?
— Shashikar Dayal

Dr. Peter D. Dwane responds:

Although fentanyl is an excellent adjuvant for spinal anesthesia, it is not particularly useful for postoperative analgesia; when it is used at its usual intrathecal dose of 10-25 micrograms [1,2] its neuraxial analgesic effect is short-acting, being limited to about three hours from the time of injection. A better opioid for postoperative analgesia would be morphine with a duration of 12-24 hours. Belzarean [3] has reported using up to 0.75 micrograms/kg, which is more than 50 micrograms in a normal weight adult, but I have no experience with this dosing, nor do I expect to.

References:

  1. Palmer CM, Voulgaropoulos D, Alves D. Subarachnoid fentanyl augments lidocaine spinal anesthesia for cesarean delivery. Regional Anesthesia. 20(5):389-94, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  2. Liu S, Chiu AA, Carpenter RL, Mulroy MF, Allen HW, Neal JM, Pollock JE. Fentanyl prolongs lidocaine spinal anesthesia without prolonging recovery. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 80(4):730-4, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  3. Belzarena SD. Clinical effects of intrathecally administered fentanyl in patients undergoing cesarean section. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 74(5):653-7, 1992.
    Link to Abstract


What is the recommended percentage of sevoflurane, with and without N2O, in a closed circuit, low flow controlled anaesthesia situation?
alalahsj@sbm.net.sa

Dr. Katherine Grichnik responds:

Two MAC hours is the recommended maximum, with a minimum of 1L/min flow rate for sevoflurane. This means 4% for 0.5 hours, 2% for 2 hours, or 1% for 4 hours has been determined to be safe. Dosing above that MAY be safe, but the FDA does not have enough data to confirm that. Nitrous oxide is irrelevant - it's total fresh gas flow that is relevant. Use of Amsorb, a different type of CO2 absorber that eliminates the risk of CO generation, also eliminates the production of compound A which should allow for a safe closed system use of sevoflurane. To my knowledge, Amsorb plus sevo in a closed system has not been studied, however.

Two recent citations were found but neither address the use of nitrous oxide in a low flow situation with sevoflurane, and neither address the maximum amount of sevoflurane to use with low flow anesthesia. The generation of compound A is the concern with this type of anesthetic circuit. A Physio-flex machine can perform closed circuit anesthesia with a computer controlled liquid injection system. It is available in Europe. Contacting these two authors directly may be useful.

Two recent citations are:

  1. Bito H, et al. Comparison of Compound A concentrations with sevoflurane anaesthesia using a closed system with a Physio-flex anaesthesia machine versus low-flow system with a conventional anaesthesia machine. Br J Anaesth 2000;84:350-3.
    Click here for abstract

Low flow anesthesia was used with both machines (totally closed with the PhysioFlex machine and 1 L/M with the conventional machine). Compound A was generated in both machines but significantly less in the PhysioFlex machine.

  1. Versichelen LF, et al. In Vitro Compound A Formation in a Computer-controlled Closed-Circuit Anesthetic Apparatus Anesthesiology 2000;93:1064-8.
    Click here for abstract

A PhysioFlex machine was connected to an artificial lung using closed circuit conditions and sodalime with modern computer controlled liquid injection. Ventilation was set for an end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure of 40 mmHg. Sevoflurane was set a 2.1% end-tidal for 120 min. This set up was compared with the classic valve-containing closed-circuit machine. Compound A reached a peak of 6 ppm in the PhysioFlex circuit and 14.3 ppm in the conventional circuit. The maximal temperature of the upper outflow part of the absorbent canister was 24.3oC in the PhysioFlex circuit and 39.8oC in the conventional circuit.



Please tell me about the dose for infiltration anesthesia in pediatrics for the following drugs:
  • Lidocaine
  • Lidocaine with epinephrine
  • Bupivacaine
  • Bupivacaine with epinephrine
  • Tetracaine

HEREMAT@aol.com

Dr. Charles Coté responds:

These doses are described in most pediatric anesthesia textbooks

    • lidocaine + epi =7 mg/kg
    • lidocaine plain 5 mg/kg
    • bupivacaine 3 mg/kg plain or with epi
    • tetracaine 1.5 mg/kg

One must also consider where the drug is injected. There is a much more rapid uptake intercostal/epidural than with peripheral nerve block, which are greater than subcutaneous infiltration.



I want to know if you have any references about the use of pure epidural oxytocin in low back pain?
alalahsj@sbm.net.sa

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

There is one reference:

Intrathecal administration of oxytocin induces analgesia in low back pain involving the endogenous opiate peptide system. Spine ;19(8): 867-71 1994 Apr 15.
Link to abstract


What is the maximal dose of intrathecal fentanyl that should be given when it is used as an adjuvant to spinal anesthesia for post operative pain relief?
— Shashikar Dayal

Dr. Peter D. Dwane responds:

Although fentanyl is an excellent adjuvant for spinal anesthesia, it is not particularly useful for postoperative analgesia; when it is used at its usual intrathecal dose of 10-25 micrograms [1,2] its neuraxial analgesic effect is short-acting, being limited to about three hours from the time of injection. A better opioid for postoperative analgesia would be morphine with a duration of 12-24 hours. Belzarean [3] has reported using up to 0.75 micrograms/kg, which is more than 50 micrograms in a normal weight adult, but I have no experience with this dosing, nor do I expect to.

References:

  1. Palmer CM, Voulgaropoulos D, Alves D. Subarachnoid fentanyl augments lidocaine spinal anesthesia for cesarean delivery. Regional Anesthesia. 20(5):389-94, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  2. Liu S, Chiu AA, Carpenter RL, Mulroy MF, Allen HW, Neal JM, Pollock JE. Fentanyl prolongs lidocaine spinal anesthesia without prolonging recovery. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 80(4):730-4, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  3. Belzarena SD. Clinical effects of intrathecally administered fentanyl in patients undergoing cesarean section. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 74(5):653-7, 1992.
    Link to Abstract

What is the maximal dose of intrathecal fentanyl that should be given when it is used as an adjuvant to spinal anesthesia for post operative pain relief? — Shashikar Dayal

Dr. Peter D. Dwane responds:

Although fentanyl is an excellent adjuvant for spinal anesthesia, it is not particularly useful for postoperative analgesia; when it is used at its usual intrathecal dose of 10-25 micrograms [1,2] its neuraxial analgesic effect is short-acting, being limited to about three hours from the time of injection. A better opioid for postoperative analgesia would be morphine with a duration of 12-24 hours. Belzarean [3] has reported using up to 0.75 micrograms/kg, which is more than 50 micrograms in a normal weight adult, but I have no experience with this dosing, nor do I expect to.

References:

  1. Palmer CM, Voulgaropoulos D, Alves D. Subarachnoid fentanyl augments lidocaine spinal anesthesia for cesarean delivery. Regional Anesthesia. 20(5):389-94, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  2. Liu S, Chiu AA, Carpenter RL, Mulroy MF, Allen HW, Neal JM, Pollock JE. Fentanyl prolongs lidocaine spinal anesthesia without prolonging recovery. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 80(4):730-4, 1995
    Link to Abstract

  3. Belzarena SD. Clinical effects of intrathecally administered fentanyl in patients undergoing cesarean section. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 74(5):653-7, 1992.
    Link to Abstract

I would like to know if there is any method used to detect or identify the presence of Rohypnol (Flunitrazepam), mixed with any drinks?
—Jaishri Meer


Dr. Katherine Grichnik responds:

Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) is a benzodiazepine manufactured by Hoffman-LaRoche[1]. It is illegal in the United States but is legally prescribed in 80 or more countries throughout the world. In Europe, it is used as a hypnotic, sleep-inducing or pre-anesthetic drug. Abuse of flunitrazepam started in the early 1990s with many street names such as roofies, rohypnol, circles, roachies, etc [1]. It can be taken intravenously, intranasally, intramuscularly, and orally. As an abuse, flunitrazepam can be dissolved into a victim’s drink with little odor or taste. Because of this, Hoffman-LaRoche is working on a formulation that will not dissolve so quickly or easily when put into liquid [2]. Use (especially with alcohol) can result in euphoria, hallucinations,
disinhibition, sedation, amnesia (desired effects) as well as dizziness,
drowsiness, apnea, ataxia, hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, confusion, and seizures (partial list) [1]. It is relatively inexpensive at $1-5 per tablet. It has been called the "date-rape" drug of choice [2]. Although respiratory depression is relatively common, respiratory arrests are usually associated with massive overdoses and when flunitrazepam is used in combination with alcohol. Severe central nervous system depression occurs with this scenario as well [2].
There are several immunoassays available to screen for benzodiazepines and their metabolites in urine [1]. There are two more specific assays for detection of flunitrazepam in the urine available as well. There are also assays available to detect flunitrazepam in plasma and chronic use can be detected from a hair sample [3]. In searching the literature, this author could not find a reference for detection flunitrazepam in liquids, although an assay must exist for this in the manufacturing process. Contacting Hoffman-LaRoche may resolve this question.

References:

  1. Ropero-Miller JD, Goldberger BA. Recreational Drugs: Current Trends in the 90s. Clinics in Laboratory Medicine 1998;18:727.
  2. Saum CA, Inciardi JA. Rohypnol Misuse in the United States. Substance Use and Misuse 1997;32:723.
  3. Cirimele V, Kintz P, Mangin P. Determination of Chronic Flunitrazepam Abuse by Hair Analysis using GC-MS-NCL. Journal of Analytical Toxicology 1996:20:596

What is the maximum dose of furosemid that can be used at the beginning of a septic shock with a starting acute kidney failure?
—Stefan Overhagen

Dr. J. Steven Hata responds:

An OV ID search of the following search strategies of (1) furosemid and septic shock, (2) diuretics and septic shock, (3) furosemid and renal failure, and (4) diuretics and renal failure produced no clinical trials supporting this strategy. With the initial concerns of adequate intravascular volume repletion in the resuscitation of the septic, I personally have concerns about the benefits of this protocol of care—unless part of a research protocol.


Do you know of any literature or references in regards to fast-track anesthesia in cardiac cases using the NMBA Zemuron (rocuronium bromide)?
—Dr. A. Breetzke

Dr. Katherine Grichnik responds:

I could not find any specific studies done on fast-tracking patients for early extubation with rocuronium. Butterworth [1] found no differences in the duration of tracheal intubation between pancuronium and vecuronium in looking at a large, multi-institutional patient population. Hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass does, however, prolong the duration of rocuronium [2]. A pro/con article has also been written discussing this controversial issue about whether the choice of muscle relaxants in important in cardiac surgery [3].

In my opinion, the choice of relaxants should depend more on the desired hemodynamic profile of the muscle relaxant for a particular patient. Even when using a long-acting agent such as pancuronium, one can still titrate the drug to allow for rapid recovery from its effects or even reversal of its effects at the end of the operation. By reversing the muscle relaxant, using only moderate amounts of narcotic intraoperatively, using inhaled agents as part of the anesthetic and taking a patient to the ICU with a short-acting sedative infusion (such as propofol), early extubation can be considered for most patients whenever the clinical condition of the patient is stable enough to allow extubation.

References:
  1. Butterworth J, James R, Prielipp RC, Cerese J, Livingston J, Burnett DA. DO shorter-acting neuromuscular blocking drugs or opioids associate with reduced ICU or hospital LOS after coronary artery bypass grafting? Anesthesiology 1998;88:1437-46
  2. Smeulers NJ, Wierda JM, van den Broek L, Gallandat Huet RC, Hennis PJ. Effects of hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass on the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of rocuronium. J Cardiothoracic and Vascular Anesthesia 1995;9:700-5
  3. Hudsen RJ Thompson IR Pro: The choice of muscle relaxants in important in cardiac surgery. Fleming N. Con: The choice of muscle relaxants in important in cardiac surgery. J Cardiothoracic and Vascular Anesthesia 1995;9:768-74

I recently had a discussion with one of our plastic surgeons regarding the dose of versed that should be given prior to the administration of ketamine in order to avoid hallucinations. This is in a situation where the two drugs are used to provide only sedation. I am not aware of any specific dose in terms of mg/kg or clinical condition (i.e. loss of consciousness) that is required prior to the administration of ketamine. My surgeon claims that the patient has to become unconscious with versed prior to ketamine administration. Are you aware of any reliable reference to answer this question?
—M. Bermann

Dr. Katherine Grichnik responds:

Emergence delirium phenomena are among the most frequently reported adverse consequences of ketamine. These reactions include a feeling of floating, vivid dreams, hallucinations, and delirium. The incidence varies from 5-30%, being more common in patients over age 16, females, and following brief procedures. Benzodiazepines have been used to reduce these reactions. Initially lorazepam and diazepam were used, but midazolam is the most common agent used today. The added advantage of using a benzodiazepine prior to ketamine is increased sedation and anxiolysis. The recommended dose for outpatient cosmetic surgery procedures is 0.03 to 0.05 mg/kg over a 2 minute period followed by ketamine. Ketamine and midazolam can also be used together (combined) as an infusion. This editor was unable to find any reference to the necessity of losing consciousness with midazolam prior to ketamine use. Further, in asking multiple practitioners, none used midazolam in this manner to decrease emergence delirium from ketamine.

Reference:
  1. Haas DA, Harper DG. Ketamine: A Review of Its Pharmacologic Properties and Use in Ambulatory Anesthesia. Anesth Prog 39:61-68; 1992

Please discuss the need or lack of need for antibiotic prophylaxis for epidural catheters and/or steroid injections. These procedures are being done in a hospital setting with the patients being outpatients. If antibiotics are indicated- are there any published recommendations for choice? Do you have any recommendations?
—Kathryn M. Hawkins

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

The information regarding antibiotic prophylaxis is somewhat limited, but I will tell you how we practice. We do not give routing antibiotic prophylaxis for our postoperative epidurals or our epidural steroid injections. On the other hand, if we are putting in a percutaneous epidural that we intend to tunnel and use for a prolonged period of time, we do provide antibiotic prophylaxis. We choose an antibiotic to cover the skin flora that are commonly associated with epidural skin tract infections.


I work for a medical device company that manufactures a small disposable pump for the management of acute post-operative pain. This device provides a local anesthetic (bupivacaine, levobupivacaine, ropivacaine,…) at a constant flow (0.5, 1.0, 2.0, 4.0 cc/hr - user selected) for ambulatory use. I often take questions from physicians regarding whether it is better to use a higher concentration of drug with lower flow rate (0.75% as opposed to 0.25% or 0.50%), or a higher flow rate with a lower concentration drug. Which is more effective for pain management, higher concentration or higher flow rate? The drug is administered through an epidural catheter typically placed subcutaneously for general or orthopedic procedures, or placed directly in the joint after a replacement procedure. I realize that I am not a health practitioner, but any guidance you could give would be passed on to a large number of your colleagues.
—Jason Allen

Dr. Richard Rosenquist responds:

I think that in most settings, it is better to use a low or moderate concentration of local anesthetic at a higher infusion rate in order to get greater spread. A higher concentration of local anesthetic will provide an denser block, but, postoperatively, analgesia rather than anesthesia is desired. The higher infusion rate provides greater spread, while the lower concentration provides a greater margin of patient safety.


Given the higher cost of desflurane and sevoflurane, and the reported failure of the isoflurane-switch-to-desflurane-
for-the-last-1/2-hour technique, where do these agents fit in today's cost effectiveness medicine times?   -- Brad Stone MD

Dr. Lubarsky Responds:

Expensive agents work when:

  1. You use very low flows. At 1L/min, sevoflurane and desflurane cost about $5/hour, and isoflurane costs about $2-3/hr. Pennies a minute difference.
  2. You use the more rapid recovery to move patients out faster, decrease peak staffing in the PACU. This could allow you to recover much greater labor savings.
  3. Your ORs routinely run overtime, and the few saved minutes at the end of each case add up to real OR labor savings.
  4. You want to go home an average of about 3 minutes earlier for each case you do in a particular room. Although the HMO's don't agree, our time IS valuable!



Is there any concern about using intraoperative nitrates in patients who are also using Viagra?   -- MEvans5004

Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
Contact your pharmacy re exact details. Do not give Viagra to patients on cardiac medications. The extra vasodilation seems to be a real problem.



Please suggest treatment for accidental intra-arterial injection of diazepam?   -- anescsl

Dr Karl Responds:
Intra-arterial injection of diazepam causes a direct lysis of arteriole and capillary cell membranes which results in severe vasospasm and thrombosis. This has been reported to result in loss of distal tissue including loss of digits and limbs. Clearly, the best course of action here is prevention: Inject diazepam only into a free-flowing intravenous infusion. If this has not been possible, the next best thing is early recognition: Intense burning pain radiating DISTALLY from the site of injection. If this occurs, stop injection and flush the catheter with a vasodilator like papaverine or procaine to decrease the local drug concentration.

Later recognition: The only noticeable effect after several days may be continued intense burning with distal radiation and preservation of pulses. Clinical signs of ischemia and gangrene may not occur for several days. If the intra-arterial needle has been removed:

  • relieve pain
  • disallow smoking
  • elevate the affected extremity to minimize edema
  • improve blood flow with sympathetic blockade
  • prevent secondary thrombosis with 10 days of IV heparin followed by coumadin for several months. The best reference I could find in English (more recent ones are in Spanish and Italian) is Rees M, Dormandy J. Accidental intra-arterial injection of diazepam. Br Med J. 1980;281:289-290.


    I have a question about "rapid sequence induction." Should narcotics and sedation be given before induction or after intubation?   -- maline-v@medlib2.kku.ac.th

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
    A rapid sequence with a questionable airway is ideally done with just an induction agent and succinylcholine. This allows you to wake up the patient if you cannot secure the airway. If you use a depolarizing agent like rocuronium, where you cannot awaken the patient if there is difficulty with the airway, or, if you anticipate no difficulty with the airway, adjunct agents like narcotics can be given as required.



    When xylocaine intravenous 1.5 mg/kg is used for blunting the hemodynamic response to tracheal intubation, what is the mechanism of drug action? What is the half life and duration of effect of intravenous xylocaine ?   -- malinee

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
    No one really knows the mechanism. It is postulated to be functioning as a general anesthetic, although other theories exist. It works from best 90 seconds to 3 minutes after injection. Personally, I think it is a useless therapy, and prefer to give a slightly greater dose of induction agent. You can find the exact half life listed in any pharmacology text.



    I have heard that IV fentanyl can raise the level of sensory block by an incomplete epidural.   -- Anne Kwan

    Dr. Philip Responds:
    I have not been able to find a reference to support the idea that IV fentanyl will raise the level of an incomplete epidural. However, when fentanyl and other opioids are given with the local anesthetic agent IN the block, as part of the epidural or spinal, they can prolong the sensory duration and increase the intensity of the block. IV fentanyl acts primarily to decrease the perception of pain and may therefore "supplement" the block that way.



    Many patients today are taking the herb St. John's Wort for the treatment of depression. Hypericum, the active drug in SJW, is known to be a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and perhaps also modulates serotonin (5-HT) reuptake. Are you aware of any adverse anesthetic reactions in patients taking SJW? Should the anesthesia practitioner avoid meperidine and sympathomimetics, as one would do with other MAOI's?   -- Hal Allerton, CRNA, MS

    The AnesthesiaWeb Board Responds:
    Actually, we can only reply that the Board is stumped. We have received several questions regarding St. John's Wort from AnesthesiaWeb members. If anyone has seen published information on it, please send it to the editors.



    What are the cutoffs for PT and PTT in your practice for doing regional anesthesia? For example, when the normal upper limit of the INR is 1.2, would a regional anesthesia be contraindicated? What about a PTT of 36 when the upper normal limit is 34?   -- Carey H. Costantini

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
    INR is only useful when a patient is on coumadin. Otherwise, one should use the PT ratio. A PT or PTT ratio > 1.2 is my cutoff, although some people here at Duke are a little more liberal. Since I do not see major outcome differences in regional versus general, I err on the side of caution.


    I would like your comments on calcium administration during weaning from cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). I have noticed CABG cases where, after coming off bypass well, administration of protamine mixed with calcium resulted in hypotension. Some even resulted in cardiac arrest. How can we know that calcium induces coronary spasm in such cases? Usually I give protamine very slowly via peripheral or LA line.   -- Kamthorn Tantivitayatan, M.D.

    Dr. Sladen Responds:
    There is a lot of mystique attached to giving calcium after cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). However there are no data that actually support this practice.

    Intravenous injection of 100-200 mg calcium chloride (up to 15 mg/kg IV prn) transiently increases contractile force and/or peripheral vascular tone, resulting in an increase in arterial blood pressure. During the weaning phase of CPB it can certainly improve ventricular performance - but in my opinion this is short-lived and may provide a false sense of security. Subsequently, after separation from CPB, the patient may slowly "sink" as the calcium effect wears off. In most cases, if calcium is required to come off CPB, it is probably an indication to add or increase inotropic support by continuous infusion.

    Addition of calcium to inotropic infusions (e.g. epinephrine + calcium = "epical"), or simultaneous administration of calcium with protamine to prevent its hypotensive effects, also does not appear to have a scientific basis. Calcium is indicated during rapid, massive blood transfusion (e.g. > 200 mL/min), because ionized calcium transiently falls through chelation by the citrate preservative in RBCs.

    Royster et al [1] found no significant improvement in cardiac output whether or not calcium chloride was added to epinephrine during weaning from CPB. Butterworth et al [2] observed that administration of calcium actually blunted the inotropic effects of dobutamine (while increasing SVR by peripheral vasoconstriction), but not those of amrinone. Johnston et al [3] compared the effects of calcium bolus with ephedrine and found the latter to be superior with regard to generating higher blood pressure and cardiac output after CPB - although I would not personally advocate for this approach, again preferring to start a continuous inotropic infusion.

    Theoretically, calcium administration has the potential to worsen myocardial ischemia or reperfusion injury after aortic cross-clamp release, or, as Dr Tantivitayatan correctly suggests, to induce coronary artery spasm.

    For all these reasons I do NOT routinely administer calcium chloride during weaning from CPB or protamine administration. I specifically avoid giving it to patients with evidence of acute myocardial ischemia - e.g. sinus tachycardia or acute ST changes during or after weaning from CPB. I reserve its use for patients who appear to be in ventricular failure despite adequate preload and inotropic support coming off CPB - recognizing that it is a temporizing measure.

    References:

    1. Royster RL, Butterworth JF, Prielipp RC, et al. A randomized, blinded, placebo-controlled evaluation of calcium chloride and epinephrine for inotropic support after emergence from cardiopulmonary bypass. Anesthesia and Analgesia. 1992;74:3-13.

    2. Butterworth JFt, Zaloga GP, Prielipp RC, et al. Calcium inhibits the cardiac stimulating properties of dobutamine but not of amrinone. Chest. 1992;101:174-80

    3. Johnston WE, Robertie PG, Butterworth JFt, et al. Is calcium or ephedrine superior to placebo for emergence from cardiopulmonary bypass? Journal of Cardiothoracic & Vascular Anesthesia. 1992;6:528-34.


    Is there any literature dealing with hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) and the use of high dose nitroglycerin S/p cabbage? Nitroglycerine is supposed to decrease HPV, however, in doses of 6-8 mcg/kg/min is there evidence that it may actually worsen it?   -- James G. Luton

    Dr. Sladen Responds:
    I am not aware of any literature in this regard. All vasodilators potentially decrease hypoxic pulmonary vasodilation, nitroglycerin included. Even if such a high dose (i.e. 6-8 mcg/kg/min) of nitroglycerin were tolerated without causing profound systemic hypotension, I would expect it to considerably decrease HPV, and worsen oxygenation in a patient with non-uniform distribution of acute lung disease or injury. At that high dose, methemoglobinemia (from the oxidation of hemoglobin by nitroglycerin) also becomes a very real problem. The recommended dose range for nitroglycerin is 0.25 - 2 mcg/kg/min. Keep in mind that if the aortic diastolic pressure drops, some of the beneficial effect of nitroglycerin on coronary perfusion pressure gradient becomes negated.



    Can you supply me with the latest references to the use of epidural Midazolam for chronic back pain/failed back/post laminectomy states?   -- Rob Graham, Durban, South Africa

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
    My pain experts (who were not experts in the use of Midazolam), had the following opinion:

    "Midazolam doesn't have any bacteriostatic preservatives (usual for an epidural injectate), and its use has not been well described in this regard. It is unclear to what (if any) receptors Midazolam is binding to in the spinal cord. Its therapeutic value will probably not be high." However, great science often results from inspirations not immediately evident to the establishment. We do not know of any references. A full medline search at your medical library might turn up something.



    Is there any literature that suggests that Atropine, when left sitting out in a plastic syringe, loses its effectiveness due to drug interaction with the plastic syringe. I was told that this occurs and atropine should be left sitting out drawn up in a syringe due to this. Any truth to this?   -- Douglas Kircher

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:
    Lynne Alexander and Ann Scates from the Duke pharmacy report the following:
    "I have looked into the stability of atropine in plastic syringes. Apparently this has not been well documented. I located one study by Lewis et al, in the Journal of the American Association of Nurse Anesthetist published 1994. The researchers placed atropine sulfate injection (0.4 mg/mL, preservative free) into 3 mL syringes composed of polypropylene plastic or glass and kept at temps of 24-27 degrees Celsius. Assays were conducted days 0,1,2,3, and 4 to determine drug concentrations. Results showed no color change or precipitate in any syringe. Plastic syringes with atropine sulfate had decreases in concentration from 43-52% with the largest decrease within the first 24 hours (44%). The glass syringes noted decreases of 11-35%. Therefore, researchers concluded that storage of atropine in these syringes should be discouraged due to the potential for drug adsorption to the syringe." I also checked with the company (Abbott) to see if any additional information from their end was available but nothing was found.



    I work in a general hospital and we often are using TIVA techniques. Opiates in combination with propofol is the preferred technique. We often discuss about the minimal required dose for propofol, without having the risk of awareness or a recall. Routinely we paralyse patients to a T1/T4 ratio of 25%, so movement might still be visible. When using an TCI-pump we mostly give more than 2.5-3.0 mcg/ml. Or when using a regular pump we give 4-6 mg/kg/hr. During the latest ASA congress the "awareness-prevention" analysis using the BIS-monitor was often the talk of the day. Does someone have any experience with the BIS and if so what is the minimal advised dose for the sedative/hypnotic component in TIVA using propofol. When using remifentanil I can give a really potent effect in the analgesic component and often have the idea that the dose of the hypnotic(=propofol) is to high compared to the use of sufentanil or alfentanil. So the next questions remain: Lowest dose of propofol without the risk of awareness? What effect does the potency of an opioid have on this dose?   -- F.Geisler, anesthesiologist ( Netherlands)

    Dr. Philip Responds:

    A TIVA technique proposes to provide anesthesia with separate analgesic, hypnotic and relaxant componnents. The use of remifentanil at the recomemded doses is an ED90, and this is why we see such good hemodynamic control and stability. Hence the reader's usual dose of propofol appears to be higher than with the older opioids; both the analgesic and the hynotic used produce decreased blood pressure and heart rate. However, the limiting factor with this technique is awareness, not hemodynamic control: How little hypnotic can be given and still avoid awareness.

    This issue was included in the manuscript by Philip et al (Anesth Analg 1997;84:515-21). For the maintenance phase of anesthesia, these authors needed remifentanil 0.29 +- 0.08ug/kg/min and propofol 77.2 +- 8.7 ug/kg/min, with vecuronium, for operative gynecologic laparoscopy. 19% of those patients responded to skin closure, some by opening their eyes. The patients did not report memory of this event but it was the authors' strong clinical impression that the dose of propofol was too marginal. Based on these results, 4 mg/kg/hr may be too little. As the reader indicates, patient movement is a good indicator of too-light anesthesia. However, I am not certain that a T1/T4 ratio of 25% will allow movement early enough to be an indicator. Other consultants may wish to comment on whether the BIS can "prevent awareness".




    In our ward we use promethazin/Phenergan as premedication for most patients. But older patients are too somnolent sometimes, and younger patients have not sufficient sedation. Do you have any experience with this drug?   -- KAR VFN v Praze, vmich@lf1.cuni.cz

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:

    Phenergan is an anti-emetic with sedative side effects. I don't actually know of anyone else using it as a premedication. One would think that an anxiolytic aimed at treating preoperative anxiety might be a much beter choice. IM versed works extremely well.




    Our hospital routinely uses a standard bupivacaine (0.1%) and fentanyl infusion epidurally for post-op pain relief. This necessarily means placing the catheter in the thoracic region for most abdominal/thoracic procedures,fentanyl being a lipophilic drug with less propensity to ascend up. Given the relative technical ease of placing a lumbar epidural catheter, would the use of a less lipophilic drug like morphine through the lumbar route provide efficient pain relief for abdominal/thoracic operations?   -- Jose Chacko, Dept. of Anaesthesia, Royal Adelaide Hospital, Australia.

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:

    In a word - yes. However, the bupivacaine will not ascend and the only effect will be from the morphine. So, you can just eliminate the bupivacine and use pure morphine. There is one paper (in A&A) which suggests that pain from upper abdominal operations is best treated using a combination of bupiv and morphine (measured visual anlaog pain scale scores).




    On my visit to UK last year I had the chance to go to the theatres and do couple of lists. To my surprise, the junior anaesthetist helping me on this list, which had a couple of young children on it, went straight forward and prepared the sevoflurane for induction. She was doing anaesthetics for 2 years and she never used Halothane, not even for paediatric cases. The funny part was that this hospital was in Manchester, England where Halothane first used...so what sort of future is there for halothane???   -- Rafik Ramzy, FFARCS

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:

    There is no future for halothane. While older practitioners have learned how to use it (and it's SO cheap), Sevo is just a much better drug. Faster and easier inductions, less stormy inductions, less hemodynamic changes, less arrhythmias, and less breath-holding.




    I would like to know your opinion on the use of "deep MAC" anesthesia with the use of remifentanyl infusion plus propofol infusion for cervical cerclage. This question came up in my practice, and as you might well imagine there were conflicting opinions on the use of this technique,i.e., endotracheal intubation vs. a deeply sedated, spontaneously breathing patient. In giving your response, please consider the fact that the patient does retain spontaneous respirations throughout the procedure with the use of the above mentioned technique.   -- G. Hartzog, CRNA

    Dr. Philip Responds:

    The answer to your question depends on whether "deep MAC" is an appropriate anesthetic type for the patient's stage of pregnancy. In mid-pregnancy and beyond, the concern is regurgitation and aspiration, and non-intubated general anesthesia techniques are not appropriate. Whether an anesthetic is MAC or General does NOT depend on whether the patient is breathing spontaneously; rather it depends on whether the patietn retains all protective reflexes. If in this "deep Mac" technique, the patient can no longer repsond purposefully to noxious stimuli -- is unresponsive to surgical stimuli--, that IS intravenous general anesthesia, and requires endotracheal anesthesia and full-stomach precaustions. In our institution, spinal anesthesia is definitely the preferred technique.





    Help! I have a patient who is presently taking an MAO inhibitor. She is scheduled for a facelift and refuses to discontinue the medication. The plastic surgeon I work with refuses to do the procedure without the use of epinephrine. I have refused to do the case. The surgeon wants me to show him documentation that a local with epinephrine cannot be used. Has my understanding of MAO inhibitors and anesthesia become antiquated?   -- C. Weitz

    Dr. Sladen Responds:

    Boy, what a classic standoff!

    My understanding of hypertensive drug interactions with MAOIs is that the primary culprits are either amines (tyramine contained in various foods such as cheeses, amphetamine), or sympathomimetic drugs that release accumulated catecholamines from nerve terminals (levodopa, dopamine, ephedrine). Meperidine causes a hyperpyrexial reaction that is poorly understood. There are certainly a number of papers that attest to the safe administration of general anesthesia (sans meperidine!) in patients on MAOI, especially the newer selective MAOI type B (e.g. selegiline), which are purported to be less likely to cause peripheral effects. 1-4

    Actually there are some data that suggest that there may be a considerably different effect of MAOI or tricyclic antidepressants depending on the duration of their administration. The classic hypertensive interactions are likely to be encountered in the first three weeks of therapy. Thereafter, there may be an impaired response to endogenous catecholamines because of receptor downregulation. 5

    I have not been able to find a direct reference to an interaction with epinephrine. My trusty Goodman & Gillman states: "Since administered catecholamines are inactivated largely by catechol-O-methyltransferase and by neuronal uptake, the MAO inhibitors have less effect in prolonging and intensifying their action." 6 Would this stand up in court should a case be brought because of morbidity or mortality caused by an intraoperative hypertensive crisis? You be the judge!

    In my opinion there is an increased risk of drug interaction with the use of epinephrine, but the extent of that risk is difficult to evaluate. In light of the fact that this is a purely elective, cosmetic procedure (and one may well ask what the relationship is between the patient's depression and the planned procedure), I agree with your stand in this situation.

    References:
    1 Blom-Peters L, Lamy M. MAOI and anesthesia: an updated literature review. Acta Anaesthesiologica Belgica 1993; 44(2):57-60.

    2 Noorily SH et al. MAOI and cardiac anesthesia revisited. Southern Med J 1997; 90(8):836-8.

    3 Fischer SP et al. Ketoroloac and propofol anesthesia in a patient taking chronic MAOI. J Clin Anesth 1996; 8(3):245-7.

    4 O'Hara JF et al. Sufentanil-isoflurane-nitrous oxide anesthesia for a patient treated with MAOI and tricylcic antidepressant. J Clin Anesth 1995; 7(2):148-50.

    5 Sprung J et al. Cardiovascular collapse during anesthesia in a patient with preoperatively discontinued chronic MAOI inhibitor therapy. J Clin Anesth 1996; 8(8):662-5.

    6 Baldessarini RJ. Drugs and the treatment of psychiatric disorders. In: Gilman AG et al. Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 8th Ed. Pergamon, New York, 1990, p 416.




    I work in Greece in a Cardiac Surgery Hospital. One of our surgeons insists of giving aprotinin during rewarming (1000000 units bolus in the pump) in most of the cases (CABGs, Valves). I would like to ask you if this way and dose of administration, in your opinion, is effective.   -- Stavros Kanellas, MD

    Dr. Sladen Responds:

    The standard "high dose" protocol for aprotonin used in the USA and Europe is as follows:

  • 2 million KIU (kallikrein inactivation units) at start of case (after test dose)
  • 2 million KIU in pump prime
  • 0.5 million KIU per hour x 4 hr during CPB (i.e. total 2 million KIU) Most studies demonstrating the hemostatic efficacy of aprotonin have used this regimen, i.e. a total of 6 m KIU aprotonin. Studies using a "low dose" regimen (i.e. half the above doses) in an effort to save money have met with some success but not as consistently as the "high dose" regimen. Theoretically, aprotonin should be administered before activation of fibrinolysis by CPB.

    Thus it is likely that in your situation you are getting a hemostatic effect that is better than giving no aprotonin, but probably not as effective as giving it by the established protocol above.

    The next question is: is it justified to give every patient aprotonin? In my opinion, emphatically not.

    Re-exposure to aprotonin carries with it a small but finite risk of anaphylaxis so why expose patients to it unnecessarily? In most routine cases, adequate antifibrinolyis can be achieved by the very cheap agent, epsilon-aminocaproic acid.

    In the February 1998 issue of AnmesthesiaWeb I review a paper by Bennett-Guerrero et al in which the authors demonstrated that in "redo" procedures, aprotonin (about $1100 a case) did provide greater reduction in blood loss than epsilon-aminocaproic acid (about $11 a case). However, when the cost of drug and required blood products was compared, the overall cost per case was significantly less with epsilon-aminocaproic acid (Amicar).

    My recommendation is to use epsilon-aminocaproic acid for all routine cases and reserve aprotonin for high risk cases (complex redo procedures, combined CABG/MVR, transplants, patients with prexisting coagulopathy or very poor cardiac function).

    Read Dr. Sladen's review by Bennett-Guerrero et al.




    I am a CRNA; for several years I have been using 2 liter, total flow, with volatile anesthetics. I have observed reductions in end tidal volumes with the reduced flows that improves with increasing total gas flow. I have recorded both inspiratory and expiratory tidal volumes with various spirometers. For example: Using a Vt of 1000cc, with 2 liter flow, over the course of a longer (2-4hr) procedure, I measure anywhere from 650-850cc expiratory tidal volumes. By increasing the flow 3,4,5,6 liters/min I can get close to my set Vt of 1000cc, say 950cc. Different gas machines give slightly different results.

    I have talked with many practitioners regarding this observation, some have seen the same thing and some say they do not. I have documented this on some of our QA sheets to try and generate some discussion. I have shown it to many, but no one is really that interested. I am concerned about what is happening to the patient. Can you help me with this?  -- Kevin Maltais, CRNA

    Dr. Lubarsky Responds:

    Your observations are correct. The way that the machine works is as follows - when the ventilator is firing and the bellows being compressed, all g